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A girl with normal milestones spends her time seeing her own hand, do not interact with others, what is the diagnosis?
(A) ADHD
(B) Autism
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Depression | The correct answer is: Autism
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e. Autism Pervasive developmental disorder includes the following conditionAutismRett's disorderAsperger's disorderChildhood disintegrative disorderPervasive disorders not otherwise specifiedPervasive development disorders are characterized by three symptom clus... | Psychiatry | Intellectual disability, communication, autism, and ADHD | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following is the commonest type of malignancy of ovary?
(A) Serous type
(B) Mucinous
(C) Dermoid cyst
(D) Granulosa cell tumor | The correct answer is: Serous type
Explanation: More than half of all epithelial ovarian cancers have serous histology. Microscopically, the cells may resemble fallopian tube epithelium in well-differentiated tumors or anaplastic cells with severe nuclear atypia in poorly differentiated tumors. During frozen section, ... | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 60-year-old man with suspected bronchogenic carcinoma. TB has been ruled out in this patient. Investigation to be done in this patient is:
(A) CT guided FNAC
(B) Bronchoscopy and biopsy
(C) Sputum cytology
(D) Chest X-ray | The correct answer is: Bronchoscopy and biopsy
Explanation: Ans. Bronchoscopy and biopsy | Radiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Truma and injury severity score (TRISS) includes
(A) GCS+BP+RR
(B) Revised trauma score ^injury severity score +age
(C) Revised trauma score +injury severity score +GCS
(D) Revised trauma score + GCS +BP | The correct answer is: Revised trauma score ^injury severity score +age
Explanation: (B) (Revised Trauma score /injury severity score + Age) (The Trauma Manual by Moore 2 Mattox)Trauma and injury severity score (TRISS) Combines the Reviseds Trauma score (RTS)and injury severity score (ISS) with the 'Age' of patient to... | Surgery | Trauma | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Vidian neurectomy is done in:
(A) Allergic rhinitis
(B) Vasomotor rhinitis
(C) Atrophic rhinitis
(D) Drug-induced rhinitis | The correct answer is: Vasomotor rhinitis
Explanation: Vidian neurectomy was first described for the treatment of intractable vasomotor rhinitis in the 1960s but fell into disrepute because of the recurrence of symptoms and significant complications. With subsequent improvements in the understanding of the nasal and s... | ENT | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which parasite lives in bladder plexus?
(A) Schistosoma
(B) Fasciola
(C) Ascaris
(D) Echinococcus | The correct answer is: Schistosoma
Explanation: All the schistosomes live in venous plexus in the body of definitive host S. haematobium in urinary bladder S.mansoni in sigmodorectal region S. japonicum in ileocaecal region | Microbiology | FMGE 2018 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Increased gamma efferent discharge seen in all EXCEPT:
(A) Anxiety
(B) Jendrassik's maneuver
(C) Skin stimulation
(D) Shallow rapid breathing | The correct answer is: Shallow rapid breathing
Explanation: Shallow rapid breathing does not increases gamma efferent discharge. Anxious patients may sometimes exhibit hyperactive tendon reflexes. Stimulation of the skin, by noxious agents, increases g-efferent discharge to ipsilateral flexor muscle spindles while dec... | Physiology | Motor System | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Child is suspected to have consumed some substance, presents with tachycardia, bronchodilation, elevated temperature and constipation. The substance ingested is most probably ?
(A) Nerium Odorum
(B) Mushroom
(C) Atropine
(D) Organophosphorus | The correct answer is: Atropine
Explanation: Alkaloids like atropine stimulates higher centers of the brain,Then the motor centres and finally cause depression and paralysis,especially of the vital centres in the medulla. The respiration is first stimulated,then depressed and the hea centre is stimulated. Peripheral e... | Forensic Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
False regarding Cytochrome P-450 enzymes :
(A) They are involved in the production of steroids
(B) They absorb maximum light at 450nm wavelength
(C) They are present in endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells
(D) They are non-heme proteins | The correct answer is: They are non-heme proteins
Explanation: cytochrome P450 a microsomal enzyme is a hemoprotein, which serves as the terminal oxidase. The name cytochrome P450 (abbreted as P450 or CYP ) is derived from the spectral propeies of this hemoprotein. In its reduced (ferrous) form, it binds carbon monoxi... | Pharmacology | General anatomy | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Lack of morphological and functional differentiation is best termed as:
(A) Metaplasia
(B) Dysplasia
(C) Anaplasia
(D) None of the above | The correct answer is: Anaplasia
Explanation: Anaplasia is defined as Lack of morphological and functional differentiation of cells. Features Metaplasia Dysplasia Anaplasia Definition Reversible change in which one adult cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) is replaced by another adult cell type Loss of uniformity of... | Pathology | General pathology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Reccurent oral ulcers with pain and erythematous halo around them, diagnosis is:
(A) Apthus ulcer
(B) Herpes
(C) Chicken pox
(D) Measels | The correct answer is: Apthus ulcer
Explanation: A i.e. Apthous ulcer Apthous Ulcers Vitamine deficiency & Stress are impoant etiological agents Charecterstically presents with reccurent painful oral ulcers with erythema & halo around itQ. | Skin | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All of the following are supplied by mandibular nerve except
(A) Masseter
(B) Tensor tympani
(C) Tensor palati
(D) Buccinator | The correct answer is: Buccinator
Explanation: D i.e. Buccinator | Anatomy | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Dr. Neelam decides to give estrogen therapy in a postmenopausal woman. The risk of which of the following will not be increased?
(A) Gall stones
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Endometrial carcinoma
(D) Breast cancer | The correct answer is: Osteoporosis
Explanation: (Ref: KDT 6/e p301) Estrogen is used for the treatment of osteoporosis in post-menopausal female. | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Freeze dried vaccine are all except -
(A) BCG
(B) DPT
(C) Measles
(D) Yellow fever | The correct answer is: DPT
Explanation: . .DPT VACCINES are mainly two types.plain and adsorbed.DPT/DT vaccine should not be frozen.it should be stored in a refrigerator at a temp of 2 to 8 degreesC.the vaccine will lose potency if stored at room temperature for a lon period of time.DPT vaccine administration,ideal ag... | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 19 yrs old male has a small circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur, likely diagnosis is:
(A) Osteoclastoma
(B) Osteosarcoma
(C) Ewing's sarcoma
(D) Osteoid osteoma | The correct answer is: Osteoid osteoma
Explanation: Sclerotic lesion over diaphysis of a long bone in a young patient indicative of osteoid osteoma. Ref: Essential Ohopedics By Maheshwari 2nd Edition, Page 213 | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All of the statements are true about FLUORO QUINOLONES, except -
(A) Suspected of having teratogenic potential
(B) Ahropathy of limb-in children may occur
(C) Increase theophylline toxicity
(D) Increase neuromuscular blocking action | The correct answer is: Increase neuromuscular blocking action
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Increased Neuromuscular blocking action Fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in children < 18 years of age, because of evidence in animals of cailage damage in developing joints. o They are contraindicated in pregnancy because... | Pharmacology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 5-year-old girl presents with the sudden onset of diffuse arthralgias and skin rash. Physical examination shows a violaceous maculopapular rash on the lower torso. Urinalysis discloses oliguria and 2+ hematuria. Urine cultures are negative. This child's clinical presentation is commonly associated with which of the f... | The correct answer is: Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Explanation: Henoch-Schonlein purpura is the most common type of childhood vasculitis and is caused by vascular localization of immune complexes containing predominantly IgA. The glomerular lesion is identical with that of IgA nephropathy. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (choi... | Pathology | Kidney | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that proceed to infraction, is approximately-
(A) 0-5%
(B) 5-15%
(C) 20-30%
(D) 30-40% | The correct answer is: 5-15%
Explanation: Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan)6th edition, page no.127 Embolism of the pulmonary aeries may produce pulmonary infarction, though not always. This is because lungs receive blood supply from bronchial aeries as well, and thus occlusion of pulmonary aery ordinarily does ... | Pathology | Respiratory system | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
At physiological pH, the carboxy-terminal of a peptide is -
(A) Positively charged
(B) Negatively charged
(C) Neural
(D) Infinitely charged | The correct answer is: Negatively charged
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Negatively charged Net charge of Aminoacids at neutral pH.At Physiological pH, all amino acids have both a negatively charged group, carboxyl ion (COO- ) and a positively charged group Ammonium ion, (-NH3+). The amino acids are therefore dipolar ... | Biochemistry | Structure & Function of Protein | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Cystine is formed from
(A) Arginine
(B) Histidine
(C) Cysteine
(D) Alanine | The correct answer is: Cysteine
Explanation: The difference in structure of cysteine and cystine. Two molecules of cysteine are joined together by S--S bond to form one molecule of cystine.Ref: M.N. Chatterjea - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 504 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of protein and amino acid | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Cell mediated immunity is by viue of?
(A) Helper t cells
(B) Suppressor t cells
(C) Cytotoxic t cells
(D) All aboce | The correct answer is: All aboce
Explanation: All above REF: Jawetz's 24th ed chapter 8 Cell mediated immunity is effected by T cells Helper T cells, suppressor T cells, cytotoxic T cells are types of T Cells | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Cherry-red colour in post moem staining is a feature of poisoning with:
(A) Nitrites
(B) Aniline
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Carbon Monoxide | The correct answer is: Carbon Monoxide
Explanation: Colour of Post Moem Staining in different conditions Condition Colour of Post moem staining Usual colour Reddish purple CO Cherry red HCN Bright Red or Dark Red or Brick Red Hypothermia, drowning Bright Pink Opium Black P or acute Cu poisoning- Dark Brown or Yellow N... | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology - 1 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Piebaldism refers to –
(A) Androgenetic alopecia
(B) Erythema nodosum leprosum
(C) Associated with white forelock
(D) None of the above | The correct answer is: Associated with white forelock
Explanation: Piebaldism is a hypopigmented disorder which is present since birth and is characterized by congenital white forelock and hypopigmented or depigmented macules on the central part of the forehead, ventral trunk, and upper & lower extremities. Involvemen... | Dental | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A depressed patient does not want to take medication on a daily basis. The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) most suitable for this patient is?
(A) Escitalporam
(B) Fluoxetine
(C) Fluvoxamine
(D) Paroxetine | The correct answer is: Fluoxetine
Explanation: The half life of fluoxetine is longer than 72 hour so patient can take the medication every other day and thus it is most suitable for him. | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
IPC 304 B is related to?
(A) Punishment for cruelty by husband or his relatives
(B) Dowry death
(C) Death caused by negligence
(D) Punishment of culpable homicide, not amounting to murder. | The correct answer is: Dowry death
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e. Dowry deatho IPC 304 - Punishment of culpable homicide, not amounting to murdero IPC 304 A - Death caused by negligenceo IPC 304 B - Dowry death : 10 years of imprisonment which can extend to life.o IPC 498 - Punishment for cruelty by husband or his rela... | Forensic Medicine | Introduction to Forensic Medicine and Medical Jurisprudence | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Spalding's ring is seen in :
(A) Still born
(B) Live born
(C) Premature
(D) Dead born | The correct answer is: Dead born
Explanation: Spalding sign : It is the irregular overlapping of the cranial bones on one another, due to liquefication of brain matter and softening of the ligamentous structures suppoing the vault. Appears 7 days after death. Ref: Datta Obs 9e pg 303. | Anatomy | Abnormal labor | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Barbiturates excretion in urine may be increased by :
(A) Diuretics
(B) Alkalinization
(C) Acidification
(D) Dialysis | The correct answer is: Alkalinization
Explanation: B i.e. Alkanization For facilitating elimination of drug in poisoning the - Urine is alkalinized in barbiturate & salicylate poisoningQ Urine is acidified in morphine & amphetamine poisoningQ Salicylates block uricosuric action of probenecid & sulfinpyrazoneQ & decrea... | Forensic Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In recording the border movement in the vertical plane, name the tracing produced by it:
(A) Diamond tracing
(B) Beak tracing
(C) Shield tracing
(D) None | The correct answer is: Shield tracing
Explanation: Border movement is the mandibular movement at the limits dictated by anatomic structures as viewed in a given plane.
Border movement recorded in:
• Horizontal plane produces characteristic 'diamond tracing'.
• Sagittal plane produces 'Beak tracing.
• Vertical plane p... | Dental | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A young man following RTA presented with proptosis and pain in the right eye after four days. On examination, there is a bruise on the forehead and right eye. What is the diagnosis -
(A) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
(B) Internal carotid artery aneurysm
(C) Carotico-cavernous fistula
(D) Fracture of sphenoid | The correct answer is: Carotico-cavernous fistula
Explanation: Common causes of proptosis associated with craniofacial trauma are:-
1) Carotid-cavernous fistula
ii) Retrobulbar hematoma
iii) Superior orbital fissure and orbital apex syndrome
Rare causes are:-
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Subperiosteal hematoma
So,... | Ophthalmology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Distal muscles of the hand needed for fine wrok are controlled by -
(A) Radial nerve
(B) Median nerve
(C) Ulnar nerve
(D) Axillary nerve | The correct answer is: Ulnar nerve
Explanation: Ans. is'c'i.e., Ulnar nerve(Ref: Snell's th/e p. 354)Ulnar nerve is also known as musicians nerve as it is needed to carry out fine and precision movements of the hand. | Anatomy | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All the statement about lactoferrin are true, except -
(A) It is present in secondary granules of neutrophil
(B) It is present in exocrine secretions of body
(C) It has great affinity for iron
(D) It transpos iron for erythropoiesis | The correct answer is: It transpos iron for erythropoiesis
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., It transpos iron for erythropoiesisTranspo of iron for erythropoesis is done by transferrin and not by LactoferrinLactoferrin o It is an iron binding protein and has high affinity for irono Lactoferrin is found in ?Specific / sec... | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In a 21 year old female patient with the complain of forwardly placed upper front teeth, extraoral examination reveals a convex profile, acute nasolabial angle, increased lower facial height and an average mandibular plane angle.
The diagnostic examination carried out in this patient can also be termed as:
(A) Farkas’ ... | The correct answer is: Poor man’s cephalometric analysis
Explanation: Profile Analysis
A careful examination of the facial profile yields the same information, though in less detail for the underlying skeletal relationships, as that obtained from analysis of lateral cephalometric radiographs. For diagnostic purposes, ... | Dental | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Ahralgia is commonly caused by which ATT drug
(A) INH
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Pyrazinamide
(D) Ethambutol | The correct answer is: Pyrazinamide
Explanation: Ahralgia is caused by pyrazinamide ,which may be non gouty or due to hyperureemia secondary to inhibition of uric acid secretion in the kidney Ethambutol also produces hyperuricemia due to interferance with urate excretion Refer KDT 6/e p742 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with:
(A) Recurrent aboions
(B) Polyhydramnios
(C) Pregnancy induced hypeension (PIH)
(D) Prematurity | The correct answer is: Polyhydramnios
Explanation: Hypothyroidism is associated with early aboions, preterm labor, still bih. The baby of a severe hypothyroidism may be born a cretinism which is a severe form of brain dysfunction associated with deaf mutism, spastic motor disorder and hypothyroidism. The association w... | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Physiological Changes of Pregnancy | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following causes the majority of UTI’s in hospitalized patients?
(A) Lack of fluid intake
(B) Inadequate perineal care
(C) Invasive procedures
(D) Immunosuppression | The correct answer is: Invasive procedures
Explanation: Invasive procedures such as catheterization can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract.
A lack of fluid intake could cause concentration of urine, but wouldn’t necessarily cause infection. | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Froment test is to check which muscle
(A) Abductor policis
(B) Palmar interosseous
(C) Adductor pollicis
(D) Dorsal interosseous | The correct answer is: Adductor pollicis
Explanation: Froment sign - compensatory flexion of interphalangeal joint of thumb due to paralysis of adductor policis Adductor policis supplied by deep branch of ulnar nerve | Anatomy | Nerve Lesions | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All of the following are used for measurement of ECF volume except
(A) Antipyrine
(B) Inulin
(C) Mannitol
(D) Sodium Thiocyanate | The correct answer is: Antipyrine
Explanation: Antipyrine is used for measurement of total body water. | Physiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following represents the half life of I123 ?
(A) 3. 2 hours
(B) 13.2 hours
(C) 8 days
(D) 10 days | The correct answer is: 13.2 hours
Explanation: Half life of radioisotope I 123 is 13.2 hours. Half life of I 124 is 4.2 days and that of I 131 is 8days. | Radiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Vertical wrinkles of upper lip in CD patient is might be result of?
(A) Lack of proper lip support
(B) Lack of lip fullness
(C) Maxillary anterior teeth set labially
(D) Any of above | The correct answer is: Lack of proper lip support
Explanation: Proper lip support leads to normal lip appearance so Lack of proper lip support due to absence of anterior teeth or too far palatally placed anterior leads to appearance of vertical wrinkles on lip. | Dental | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Concentration of which of the following is maximum in a cell next to water ?
(A) Protein
(B) Fat
(C) Sodium
(D) Carbohydrates | The correct answer is: Protein
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., ProteinMost of the cytosol is water, which makes up about 70% of the total volume of a typical cell.Next higher concentration is of proteins. Protein molecules that do not bind to cell membranes or the cytoskeleton are dissolved in the cytosol. The amount o... | Biochemistry | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following condition is associated with necrotizing lymphadenitis?
(A) Hodgkin's disease
(B) Kikuchi disease
(C) Kimura disease
(D) Sarcoidosis | The correct answer is: Kikuchi disease
Explanation: Kikuchi histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis, or Kikuchi disease, is a self-limited disease that primarily affects women 20-30 years old. Patients typically have unilateral lymph node enlargement, most often in the posterior cervical chain, which may be accompanied ... | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Increased episcleral venous pressure can:
(A) Increase IOP
(B) Decrease IOP
(C) No effect on IOP
(D) Initially increases then decreases IOP | The correct answer is: Increase IOP
Explanation: Increased episcleral venous pressure Increases IOP. Decreases drainage. | Ophthalmology | Glaucoma | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Chediak Higashi syndrome is characterized by-
(A) Giant granules in leukocytes
(B) Albinism
(C) Mutation in LYST gene
(D) All the above | The correct answer is: All the above
Explanation: Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above | Pathology | Immune Deficiency Diseases | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Screening of cervical cancer at PHC level is done by?
(A) History and clinical examination
(B) Colposcopy
(C) CT scan
(D) PAP smear | The correct answer is: PAP smear
Explanation: Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 387 The prolonged early phase of cancer in situ can be detected by the Pap smear. The present strategy is to screen women using visual inspection after application of freshly prepared 5%acetic acid solution. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Screening | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first -
(A) Pulmonary vein
(B) Pulmonary aery
(C) Bronchial aery
(D) Superior vena cava | The correct answer is: Bronchial aery
Explanation: Massive Hemoptysis Hemoptysis of >200-600cc in 24 hours. Massive Hemoptysis should be considered as a medical emergency Treatment Large-volume, life threatening Hemoptysis generally require immediate intervention regardless of the cause The first step is to establish ... | Anatomy | Cardio thoracic surgery | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following infects hair, skin and nails
(A) Trichosporum
(B) Trichophyton
(C) Microsporum
(D) Epidermophyton | The correct answer is: Trichophyton
Explanation: Microsporum- hair and skin. Epidermophyton- skin and nail. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition | Microbiology | mycology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
All the following are peptide based except ?
(A) ACTH
(B) GnRH
(C) Thyroxin
(D) TRH | The correct answer is: Thyroxin
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Thyroxin | Biochemistry | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following is called Dense deposit disease
(A) RPGN - I
(B) MPGN - II
(C) RPGN - II
(D) MPGN - I | The correct answer is: MPGN - II
Explanation: It is called Dense deposit disease because of deposition of abnormal, electron dense material within the GBM of kidney and often within Bructis membrance in the eye. | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Actions of Bradykinin include all of the following, EXCEPT:
(A) Vasodilatation
(B) Bronchodilatation
(C) Increased vascular permeability
(D) Pain | The correct answer is: Bronchodilatation
Explanation: Kinins cause marked bronchoconstriction and not bronchodilatation. Their effect on other smooth muscles is not prominent. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 455 - 456; Textbook of Medical Physiology By Guyton and Hall, 10th E... | Pathology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Toxic epidermal necrolysis {TEN} involves body surface area
(A) <10%
(B) 10-20%
(C) 20-30%
(D) >30 | The correct answer is: >30
Explanation: Based on body surface area ( BSA) of skin involved, epidermal necrolysis is classified into SJS: less than 10% BSASJS_TEN overlap: 10-30% BSA TEN : more than 30% BSA. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 92 | Dental | Vestibulobullous disorders | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Formation of primary palate is from which of the following ?
(A) Lateral nasal prominences
(B) Medial nasal prominences
(C) Maxillary prominences
(D) Mandibular prominences | The correct answer is: Medial nasal prominences
Explanation: Definitive palate =Fusion of primary and secondary palate ventrally in a Y shaped manner. Primary palate- From inter-maxillary segment (fusion of 2 medial nasal prominence) Secondary palate-From fusion of lateral palatine process ( from maxillary process) | Anatomy | Pharyngeal arch and its derivatives, pharyngeal arch aeries | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
The ratio of c peptide: insulin in normal adults is
(A) 2:01
(B) 1:02
(C) 1:01
(D) 1:04 | The correct answer is: 1:01
Explanation: C peptide and insulin are released in an equal ratio from beta cells of the pancreas. The indirect way of measurment of insulin in ones body is measuring the C peeptide . Ref:HL sharma 3rd ed.Pg 634 | Pharmacology | Gastrointestinal tract | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Vasa pre in a term gestation is managed by __________
(A) Rapid induction and delivery by vaccum
(B) Rapid induction and delivery by forceps
(C) Immediate LSCS
(D) Adopt vagos method and rapid vaginal delivery | The correct answer is: Immediate LSCS
Explanation: Vasa Pre in a term gestation is managed by immediate LSCS. Management of vasa pre: Confirmed vasa pre not bleeding: Admit at 28-32 weeks, plan elective CS depending on fetal lung maturity Bleeding vasa pre: Delivery should be done by category 1 Emergency CS. (Categori... | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In an adult patient with plural effusion, the most appropriate site for plurisentesis done by inseing a needle is in:
(A) 5th intercostals space in midclevicular line
(B) 7th intercostal space in mid axillary's bone
(C) 2nd intercostals space adjacent to the sternum
(D) 10th intercostal space adjacent to the veebral co... | The correct answer is: 7th intercostal space in mid axillary's bone
Explanation: Answer is B (7th Intercostal space in mid axillary line): Site of pleural effusion drainage is seventh intercostal space in mid-axillary line. Pneumothorax | Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Normal finding in term neonate-
(A) Erythema toxicum
(B) Ebstein's pearl
(C) Subconjunctival hemorrhages
(D) All | The correct answer is: All
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Erythema toxicum; 'b' i.e., Ebstein pearls; 'c' i.e., Subconjunctival haemorrhage | Pediatrics | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Resource person for Training ofASHA are
(A) AWW and MPW
(B) AWW and ANM
(C) MPW and ANM
(D) ANM and MO | The correct answer is: AWW and ANM
Explanation: Ans. is 'b i.e., AWW and ANM o Angan-Wadi Workers (AWW) and Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) act as resource persons far training of ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist). | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Puppe's rule deals with ?
(A) Chemical injuries
(B) Multiple impact injuries
(C) Sexual assault
(D) Percentage of burns | The correct answer is: Multiple impact injuries
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Multiple impact injuries Puppe's rule It deals with multiple impact injuries. In multi impact injuries fracture systems form a network, and according to puppe's rule the later fractures will not the earlier ones, but will terminate at the e... | Forensic Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A gardener comes with linear nodules on the hand for last one year , how will you treat the patient.
(A) Amphotericin B
(B) Griseofulvin
(C) Ampicillin
(D) Iodine | The correct answer is: Iodine
Explanation: Diagnosis is Rose gardener disease/ Sporotrichosis commonly seen in farmers, gardeners, florists etc. It is caused by Sporothrix schenckii (Thermally dimorphic) Fungi Fungus may produce a series of inflamed nodules along the line of lymphatic drainage (i. e. linear lesions). ... | Dental | Fungal infections | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A woman with no history of any prenatal care is going to deliver a baby. She has no history of amniotic rupture and ultrasound showed severe oligohydramnios. Which of the following conditions can be the cause of oligohydramnios?
(A) Renal agenesis
(B) Anencephaly
(C) Trisomy 18
(D) Duodenal atresia | The correct answer is: Renal agenesis
Explanation: Oligohydramnios occurs due to congenital abnormalities of the fetal kidneys or genitourinary tract, such as renal agenesis or obstruction, that impede normal formation or excretion of fetal urine. Anencephaly, trisomy 18 and duodenal atresia causes polyhydramnios. | Pediatrics | congenital anomalies of kidney | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following drug is not used in Jorgenson technique:
(A) Pentobarbitol.
(B) Scopolamine.
(C) Propofol.
(D) Pethidine. | The correct answer is: Propofol.
Explanation: Jorgenson technique includes intravenous administration of opioids. The drugs used in Jorgenson technique are:
Pentobarbitol
Mepiridine
Scopalamine (Hyoscine)
Pethidine, etc. | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Ureterovaginal fistula should best be treated by-
(A) Ureteroneocystostomy
(B) End-to-end anastomosis through an ureteric catheter
(C) Implantation into colon
(D) Ileal conduit | The correct answer is: Ureteroneocystostomy
Explanation: In case of ureteric transection ,paial or complete,a pyelography fails to show pa or whole of the ureter on the transected site and there may be pooling of dye in the peritoneal cavity. The immediate treatment is percutaneous nephrostomy and retrograde dye injec... | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Urogynecology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
True about right atrium is :
(A) Auricle lies superolaterally
(B) Related to central tendon of diaphragm at Tio level
(C) Coronary sinus lies between fossa ovalis and IVC
(D) SVC opening is gaurded by endocardial valve | The correct answer is: Coronary sinus lies between fossa ovalis and IVC
Explanation: Coronary sinus lies between fossa ovalis and IVC | Anatomy | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Phenylalanine deaminase test is positive in ?
(A) Salmonella
(B) Proteus
(C) Vibrio cholerae
(D) Helicobacter | The correct answer is: Proteus
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proteus The distinctive character of proteus genus is deamination of phenyl alanine to phenyl pyruvic acid (PPA + ye) | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following statement is true about Pinna except:
(A) In Treacher-Collins syndrome malformed pinna may be present
(B) Made up of elastic cailage
(C) Develop from lst pharyngeal cleft only
(D) Helps in localization of sound | The correct answer is: Develop from lst pharyngeal cleft only
Explanation: Ans. c. Develop from lst pharyngeal cleft onlyFirst branchial cleft is the precursor of external auditory canal.Around the sixth week of embryonic life, a series of six tubercles appear around the first branchial cleftBranchial clefts are ectod... | Anatomy | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
True/false about bone tumours Most common malignant tumour of bone is metastases. Most common primary malignant bone tumour is multiple myeloma Codman triangle is specific for osteosarcoma. IOC for skeletal metastases is CT scan. Blow out bone metastases are seen in renal cell carcinoma.
(A) TTFFT
(B) FTFFT
(C) TTFFF
(... | The correct answer is: TTFFT
Explanation: Most common malignant tumour of bone is metastases. Most common primary malignant bone tumour is multiple myeloma. Codman triangle is seen in - osteosarcoma, ewing's sarcoma, metastases, GCT etc. IOC for skeletal metastases is bone scan. Blow out bone metastases is seen in RCC... | Radiology | Musculoskeletal Radiology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Regarding NK cells, FALSE statement is:
(A) It is activated by IL-2
(B) They express inhibitory receptors that recognize MHC class I
(C) It is a variant of large lymphocyte
(D) There is antibody induced proliferation of NK cells | The correct answer is: There is antibody induced proliferation of NK cells
Explanation: Antibodies do not induce proliferation of NK cells. NK cells can kill virus infected cells without antibodies, but IgG antibody can enhance their effectiveness, a process called antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity. Impoant fea... | Medicine | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In dhatura poisoning 9 'Ds' include all except -
(A) Diarrhea
(B) Dysphagia
(C) Dilated pupil
(D) Drowsiness | The correct answer is: Diarrhea
Explanation: Clinical Features of datura * Dryness of mouth (dry as bone) * Bitter taste * Difficulty in talking * Dysphagia* Dilated pupils * Diplopia* Difficulty in vision (blurring of vision, blind as bat) * Dry hot skin with flushing (red as beet) * Hyperpyrexia (hot as hare) * Drun... | Forensic Medicine | Poisoning | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
About Neuropeptide Y, all are true except
(A) It decreses the activity of melanocoieotropin hormone
(B) Decreases thermogenesis
(C) Its level decreases during starvation
(D) Contains 36 Amino-acid residues | The correct answer is: Its level decreases during starvation
Explanation: Neuropeptide Y (NPY) is a 36-amino acid peptide neurotransmitter found in the brain and autonomic nervous system. It augments the vasoconstrictor effects of noradrenergic neurons.A natural substance that acts on the brain to stimulate eating. Wh... | Physiology | Endocrinology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Maximum working hours duration including overtime for a person working in a factory as per the factories act 1948 is
(A) 48 hours
(B) 60 hours
(C) 72 hours
(D) 80 hours | The correct answer is: 60 hours
Explanation: Factories Act* The act prohibits employment of children below the age of 14 years and declares that age between 15 to 18 as adolescents.* Adolescents should be duly certified by the Certifying surgeons.* Adolescent s employees are allowed to work only between 6 AM and 7 PM.... | Social & Preventive Medicine | Hospital waste, disaster management and occupational health | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
False regarding Bochdalek hernia is -
(A) Spleen and kidney can herniate
(B) Occurs posterolaterally
(C) Always occurs on right side
(D) Hernia may or may not have sac | The correct answer is: Always occurs on right side
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Always occur on the right side Bochdalek hernia occurs mostly on left side (80%) I have no idea about option 'd' | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following is known as Preisz Nocard bacillus
(A) Corynebacterium diphtheria
(B) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
(C) Influenza bacillus
(D) Salmonella | The correct answer is: Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Explanation: Corynebacteria of veterinary impoance are Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. Also called as Preisz - Nocard bacilli. Causes pseudotuberculosis in sheeps and suppurative lymphadenitis in horses. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan an... | Microbiology | Bacteriology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Southern blot is used to detect -
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Protein
(D) Ribosome | The correct answer is: DNA
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., DNA TechniqueSample analyzedGel usedProbeSouthern blotDNAQYesRadioactive DNAAllele specific oligonucleotide (ASO)DNANoAllele specific oligonucleotideMicroarraym-RNA or c-DNANoDNA probeNorthern blotRNAQYesDNA probeWestern (immuno) blotProteinQYesLabeled antibody... | Biochemistry | Molecular Genetics | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following is spared in modified radical mastectomy (MRM)?
(A) Pectoralis major
(B) Pectoralis minor
(C) Axillary lymph nodes
(D) Nipple | The correct answer is: Pectoralis major
Explanation: Ans. a (Pectoralis major). (Ref. Bailey & Love Surgery, 25th ed., 842)MASTECTOMY is now only strictly indicated for large tumors, central tumor beneath or involving nipple, multifocal disease, and local recurrence or for patient preference.Simple mastectomyRadical m... | Surgery | Breast Cancer - Treatments | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Tensilon test is used for?
(A) Botulism
(B) Arsenic
(C) Iron
(D) Phenol | The correct answer is: Botulism
Explanation: TENSILON TEST : edrophonium is used to differentiate botulism from myasthenia gravis. Botulism Tensilon test Arsenic Marsh Test Iron Desferrioxamine colour test Phenol Ferric chloride test | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology - 3 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Not a radiosensitizing drug -
(A) 5-Fu
(B) BUDR
(C) Cyclophosphamide
(D) Hydroxyrea | The correct answer is: Cyclophosphamide
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cyclophosphamide RadiosensitizersA) Hypoxic cell radiosensitizers1) Nitroimidazoles:- Metronidazole, Misonidazole, Etanidazole, Nimorazole, Pimonidazole2) Anticancers:- Actinomycin D (Dactinomycin), Bleomycin, Cisplatin, Doxorubicin, 5-FU, Fludarab... | Radiology | Radiation treatment planning | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Failure rate of contraceptive method is determined by -
(A) Pearl index
(B) Half life
(C) Number of accidental pregnancies
(D) Period of contraceptive practice continued | The correct answer is: Pearl index
Explanation: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pearl index o Pearl index is "failure rate per hundred women years of exposurePearl indexo Contraceptive methods are evaluated by Pearl indexo Pearl index is "'failure rate per hundred women years of exposure (HWY)"Fai lure rate per HWY = -Total acciden... | Social & Preventive Medicine | Family Planning | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
CSF otorrhea is caused by
(A) Fracture of cribriform plate
(B) Fracture of parietal bone
(C) Fracture of petrous temporal bone
(D) Fracture of tympanic membrane | The correct answer is: Fracture of petrous temporal bone
Explanation: CSF otorrhea is seen in middle cranial fossa fractures. | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following will decrease the physiologic dead space?
(A) Emphysema
(B) Neck flexion
(C) Increase in tidal volume
(D) IPPV | The correct answer is: Neck flexion
Explanation: Neck flexion decreases the volume of anatomic dead space and thus the total or physiologic dead (which includes anatomic dead space) will decrease. Physiologic dead space includes those alveoli which do not receive perfusion, making it a wasted ventilation in those alve... | Physiology | Respiratory System Pa 1 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In testicular feminisation syndrome:
(A) Buccal smear is chromatin positive
(B) Normal breast size is observed
(C) Menstruation is scanty and infrequent
(D) Streak gonads seen | The correct answer is: Normal breast size is observed
Explanation: Ans. is b, i.e. Normal breast size is observedRef: Dutta Gynae 6th/ed, p443In testicular feminization syndrome:Genotype = 46 XY* Hence Barr body is absent i.e. chromatin negative (i.e., option a is incorrect)* Here gonads are testis and are not streak ... | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Sex Intersexuality | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Testicular aery is a branch of -
(A) Abdominal aoa
(B) Common iliac aery
(C) External iliac aery
(D) Internal iliac aery | The correct answer is: Abdominal aoa
Explanation: Testicular aery is direct branch of abdominal aoa. | Anatomy | FMGE 2019 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Mechanism of cyanide poisoning is by inhibiting -
(A) DNA synthesis
(B) Cytochrome oxidase
(C) Protein breakdown
(D) Protein synthesis | The correct answer is: Cytochrome oxidase
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cytochrome oxidase o Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase for oxygen utilisation in cells,o Death is due to cytotoxic/ histotoxic anoxia,o It is associated with a characteristic smell of bitter almonds. | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A patient has subclinical folate deficiency. All of the following drugs can precipitate megaloblastic anemia in this patient except
(A) Alcohol
(B) Phenytoin
(C) chloroquine
(D) Sulfasalzine | The correct answer is: chloroquine
Explanation: Chloroquine doesnot produce megaloblastic anemia. Whereas all the other three drugs can precipitate megaloblastic anemia. From medical pharmacology padmaja 4th edition Page no 224,399,217,478 | Pharmacology | Hematology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 10-month old male child was having vomiting upon eating fruits, but is of normal weight. He has been exclusively breast fed till now. The doctor suggests fructose intolerance. Which of the following enzyme would be deficient in this child?
(A) Aldolase B
(B) Hexokinase
(C) Fructokinase
(D) Glucose-6-phosphatase | The correct answer is: Aldolase B
Explanation: Ans. a. Aldolase B | Biochemistry | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A patient with clustered white lesions on the buccal mucosa opposite the upper 1st as 2nd molars pathognomonic for measles These are
(A) Leukoplaka
(B) Koplik spots
(C) Kaposi spots
(D) none | The correct answer is: Koplik spots
Explanation: ref : harrisons 21st ed | Medicine | All India exam | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A patient presented with sudden onset on thunderclap headache & dilated pupils. Finding are consistent with:
(A) Meningitis
(B) Brain stem encephalitis
(C) Acute ischemia of midbrain
(D) Acute aneurismal hemorrhage | The correct answer is: Acute aneurismal hemorrhage
Explanation: SAH- Thunder clap headache Cause- Rupture of berry's aneurysm If at post. communicating aery rupture-Involves oculomotor Nerve -So, Dilated pupils -Meningitis - Headache + fever + Nuchal rigidity -Brainstem encephalitis- Altered sensorium autonomic insuff... | Medicine | FMGE 2018 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Reversible Dementia Is a feature of ?
(A) Hyperparathyroidism
(B) Hypothyroidism
(C) Hyperthyroidism
(D) Cushing's disease | The correct answer is: Hypothyroidism
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hypothyroidism Causes of reversible dementiao Hypothyroidismo Normal pressure hydrocephaluso Depressiono Drugso Alcoholo Vitamin B12 deficiency | Medicine | Psychiatry | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A child presents with bladder exstrophy and chronic renal failure. The muscle relaxant of choice to be used during surgery of exstrophy in this child is:
(A) Atracurium
(B) Mivacurium
(C) Pancuronium
(D) Rocuronium | The correct answer is: Atracurium
Explanation: Ans. (A) Atracurium(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p453, KDT 8th/e p380)Atracurium is eliminated by Hoffman's elimination i.e. it does not require liver or kidney. It is the muscle relaxant of choice in hepatic and renal failure. | Pharmacology | Anaesthesia | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Rotation of sigmoid volvulus occur in which direction?
(A) Clockwise
(B) Anticlockwise
(C) Initially clockwise later anticlockwise
(D) Either clockwise or anticlockwise | The correct answer is: Anticlockwise
Explanation: "Rotation in sigmoid volvulus nearly always occur in anticlockwise direction" Remember Sigmoid volvulus --------- Anticlockwise Cecal volvulus ----------- Clockwise Ref: Bailey & Love 25/e, Page 1192; CSDT 13/e, Page 682; Textbook of Surgery by S. Das 3/e, Page 1031. | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
An army jawan posted in remote forest area had fever and headache. His fever was 104degF and pulse was 70 per min. He had an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood sample was collec... | The correct answer is: High OX - K
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., High OX - K . Fever, headache, erythmatous lesion along with generalized lymphadenopathy are suggestive of scrub typhus. . In scrub typhus, Weil - Felix reaction is strongly positive with the proteus strain OX - K. Note ---> In this question the key wor... | Microbiology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Agent which dissolves rubber –
(A) Halothane
(B) Enflurane
(C) Desflurane
(D) Isoflurane | The correct answer is: Halothane
Explanation: Halothane and methoxyflurane are absorbed by rubber. | Anaesthesia | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In normal pressure hydrocephalus, all are seen except-
(A) Convulsion
(B) Ataxia
(C) Dementia
(D) Incontinence | The correct answer is: Convulsion
Explanation: Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus is an uncommon syndrome consisting of
an abnormal gait (ataxia or apractic)
dementia (usually mild to moderate)
urinary incontinence
This is a communicating hydrocephalus with patent aqueduct of Sylvius.
NPH is presumed to be caused by ob... | Surgery | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Onabotulinum toxin A can be used for the treatment of:
(A) Cervical dystonia.
(B) Chronic migraine.
(C) Blepharospasm.
(D) Strabismus. | The correct answer is: Chronic migraine.
Explanation: Onabotilinum toxin A has recently been approved to prevent a headache in adult patients with chronic migraine. | Pharmacology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
A 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with invasive cervical carcinoma by cone biopsy. Pelvic examination and rectal examination reveal the parametrium is free of disease but upper pa of vagina is involved with tumor.IVP and sigmoidoscopy are negative but CT Scan of abdomen and pelvis shows grossly enlarged pelvic and para ... | The correct answer is: IIa
Explanation: Stage ll:clinically visible lesions limited to cervical uteri or pre-clinical cancers greater than stageIA Stage IIA:Without parametrial invasion, A1&A2 Stage llB:With obvious parametrial invasion D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY,Pg no:342,6th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological oncology | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In a child who has been raped hymen:
(A) Will be intact because it is elastic
(B) Will be intact because it is deep situated
(C) Will be perforated because very thin
(D) Will be perforated because superficial | The correct answer is: Will be intact because it is deep situated
Explanation: In case of rape on small children,hymen is usually intact, since it is deeply situated. In children, the hymen is deeply situated, and as the vagina is very small, it is impossible for the penetration of the adult organ to take place. In ch... | Forensic Medicine | NEET Jan 2020 | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
In cotrimoxazole, sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim are in the ratio of-
(A) 2:01
(B) 1:01
(C) 5:01
(D) 1:05 | The correct answer is: 5:01
Explanation: Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5 : 1 o Optimal synergy in case of most organism is exhibited at a concentration ratio of Sulphamethoxazole 20: Trimethoprim 1 (This ratio is obtained in plasma when two are given in a dose ratio of 5:1). | Pharmacology | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Fast breathing in less than 2 month child the respiratory rate is
(A) 60 breaths per minute
(B) 50 breaths per minute
(C) 40 breaths per minute
(D) 30 breaths per minute | The correct answer is: 60 breaths per minute
Explanation: A. i.e. (60 breaths per minute) (144- Park 19th) (154- Park 20th)* FAST BREATHING is present when the respiratory rate is- 60 breaths per minute or more in a child less than 2 months of age- 50 breaths per minute or more in a child aged 2 months upto 12 months-... | Social & Preventive Medicine | Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Which of the following occurs first with the use of d-tubocurare:
(A) Diaphragmatic relaxation
(B) Abdominal wall relaxation
(C) Diplopia
(D) Ptosis | The correct answer is: Diaphragmatic relaxation
Explanation: Any neuromuscular blocker when given intravenously goes to highly perfused organ like diaphragm and intercostal muscle first then facial muscle , then upper limb and last lower limb. Thus sequence of block - diaphragm and intercostal muscle - facial muscle -... | Anaesthesia | Neuromuscular Blocker | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Most common cause of pyogenic liver abscess -
(A) Diverticulitis
(B) Stricture of CBD
(C) Subdiaphragmatic abscess
(D) Empyema in chest | The correct answer is: Stricture of CBD
Explanation: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Stricture of CBD Routes of infection to liverAlong the bile ducts (MC)Stone impacted in CBDStricture of CBD - benign, malignantCryptogenicVia the portal veinVia the hepatic arteryBy direct extensionFrom a subdiaphragmatic abscessFrom an empyema in ... | Surgery | Hepatic Tumors, Cysts, and Abscesses | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
Calcium channel blockers in anesthesia, True is :
(A) Needs to be decreased as they augment hypotension & muscle relaxation
(B) Withheld because they lower LES pressure
(C) Should be given in normal doses as they prevent MI & angina
(D) All of the above | The correct answer is: Should be given in normal doses as they prevent MI & angina
Explanation: C i.e. Should be given in normal dose as they prevent MI & Angina Calcium channel blockers potentiate neuromuscular-block, cause lowering of muscle tone of lower esophageal sphincter but there is no such indication of stopp... | Anaesthesia | null | medium | NEET | medmcqa | |
An 8-year-old child is evaluated by the pediatrician, who notes small cafe-au-lait spots on the child's torso. In addition, on close inspection of the eyes, the presence of Lisch nodules is noted. The patient is eventually diagnosed with neurofibromatosis type 1. The protein that is mutated in this disorder normally do... | The correct answer is: Activates the GTPase activity of Ras
Explanation: The normal function of NF1 is to promote the intrinsic GTPase function of the RAS oncogene. Mechanism:- RAS has an intrinsic GTPase activity that is accelerated by GTPase-activating proteins (GAPs), which bind to active RAS and augment its GTPase... | Pathology | Genetic Basics Of Carcinogenesis | medium | NEET | medmcqa |
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